A. F. Kracklauer wrote:
""entanglement": contrary to popular opinion, it is NO different from ordinary statistical correlation."

Assuming the correlation is 100% vs. 0%?

If I measure the polarization of a local photon and 100% of the time the remote photon's polarization is predictable I will grant that this is a statistical correlation. But in what way is it not entanglement?

I haven't gotten to the library yet to read your papers but on its face your argument seems wanting.

DA Morgan