Originally posted by Pasti:
I am waiting for your CONCRETE ARGUMENTS regarding the incorrectness of the issue of your choice in QC/QUAC/
Take the "quantum entanglement". It is regergitation of the discussion about 60 years ago.
The story goes that two coherent particles are being created.
They do not physically interact after being created.
One of them is being observed/measured first What can be said about the state of the second particle, and after the measurement of the first one, that could not be said before the measurement ?
1. Before the measurement, we have total state as production of the states of those particles
|1,2> = |1>|2>, <1|1>=<2|2>=1
Let say M1 and M2 are propeties of the first and the second particle. Their operators will commute:
[M1,M2]=0
Measurement of amplitude of property M1 of first particle, gives
<1,2|M1|1,2> = <1|M1|1>
The mesurement changes the state of the first particle to |1m>
subsequent easurement of amplitude of property M2 of second particle, gives
<1m,2|M2|1m,2>/<1m,2|1m,2> = <2|M2|2>
No matter what order you make the measurements,
those results will be the same.
This is a simple model. You can complicate it as much as you want, the result will be the same.
This simply a restatement of the fact that those particles are independent during the time, whereat we analyze their behavior.
Clearly, no specific entanglement effects are observed.
You might say, that we could have some prior knowlege about the system, like total energy.
The quantum mechanics do not consider such knowlege and do not evaluate changes of such knowlege due to experiment.
It starts and ends with system, defined to the extent that its Psy function defined.
Those who make conclusions beyond that, are on their own, they can not claim that it is what quantum mechanics say.
Thus, the claim about "quantum entanglement" has no quantum mechanical justification. It is a hoax to say it does.
ES
