Dan. I don't know of any Rabbis here. A Christian site that argues why Elohim is singular:
http://www.wcg.org/lit/God/elohimp.htmQuote from the article:
"These examples show that elohim has a singular sense, despite its form. In order to understand how the form arose, one needs to examine the development of linguistic forms that the Israelites inherited from those who spoke Semitic languages before them. In polytheistic societies such as those of the Canaanites, Amorites, Egyptians, etc., a plural reference to the gods would be standard, and hardly out of place. As the language undergoes changes in a monotheistic society such as Israel, it is natural that older forms would be used with new senses."
Now this is exactly what I said. As it became politically useful to have just one god the verb had to change. Seems from other references that this simply involves removing one letter from the verb. Easily done by a sympathetic scribe. The writer says, "a monotheistic society such as Israel" but archeology shows Israel was not monotheistic until the time of Hezekiah, around 700 BC.
However. I have found this. Talks about strengthening the noun. May be an explanation.
http://www.israelofgod.org/elohim1.htm
