From the wikipedia site:
"Elohim has plural morphological form in Hebrew, but it is used with singular verbs and adjectives in the Hebrew text when the particular meaning of the God of Israel (a singular deity) is traditionally understood."
Does that prove the texts were altered at some stage or what? The word for gods wasn't changed but the need to narrow it down to just one meant the plurality had to be disguised.
Terry,
You took one sentence and beat it with a hammer to construct a conclusion.
The whole section:
"Elohim has plural morphological form in Hebrew, but it is used with singular verbs and adjectives in the Hebrew text when the particular meaning of the God of Israel (a singular deity) is traditionally understood. Thus the very first words of the Bible are breshit bara Elohim, where bara ברא is a verb inflected as third person singular masculine perfect. If Elohim were an ordinary plural word, then the plural verb form bar'u בראו would have been used in this sentence instead. Such plural grammatical forms are in fact found in cases where Elohim has semantically plural reference (not referring to the God of Israel)."I am not a cosmologist, so I don't attempt to draw conclusions from little snippets of information - neither would you.
I am also not a scholar of ancient Hebrew so again, I don't attempt to make a case from a Hebrew word or sentence - neither should you.
It constantly amazes me that people think they can tread with hobnail boots all over an ancient language whilst ignoring anything that might be said by those that have made the study of such languages their life's work.
No offence meant to you my friend, I see people do this all the time with ancient religious texts.
Blacknad.
