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F=ma
force = mass x acceleration
several of the members on this forum seem to think that a force does not require acceleration.
are they correct or is physics correct.
can we toss the old faithfull formula in the trash can. or should we just ignore them.
my problem with their thinking is that in order to have any force the object that is placing the force must have motion.
and I am used to a force being the product of mass x acceleration
am I wrong about this , because if I am wrong about this then physics is also wrong.
is physics wrong about this?
is F=ma wrong?
I personally know that those who claim that a force does not require motion are wrong , but I would like the opinion of others on the forum who think that F=ma means that in order for there to be a force there must be motion ( acceleration ).
these are the people on the forum who seem to think that F=ma is wrong.
orac bill gill
they seem to just toss physics in the trash can in order to appear as if they are winning their discussion , as if they're accomplishing a goal and physics means nothing to them as long as they are seen as the victor in the discussion.
their attitude in a discussion is
It's all about winning the science discussion
nothing else including science matters.
I think that they think this is just something like facebook or some other social web site.
and I think that a science forum should allow some social activity , but a line should be drawn when things like this occur.
and here's proof.
I am suspending myself for lack of interest on my part. there is no scientific discussion available on this want to be science discussion forum.
if at a later date , I decide that the forum has matured into a science discussion forum , I might return.
bu bye
3/4 inch of dust build up on the moon in 4.527 billion years,LOL and QM is fantasy science.
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Oh had to start a new thread .... back to kiddies school for you http://www.zephyrus.co.uk/forcetypes.htmlThats science for 10 year olds there are nine types of force they show genius so perhaps you can show me F=MA in each of the nine types of force. Funky Paul God Force = Made Up Garbage x Absolutely No Understanding we simply that to F=MA perhaps we can add that as your byline. As a grown up with interest in science I did a quick count and I can name 18 forces without trying want to guess how many of them involve the formula F=MA ???????? I know way too hard for you but guess.
Last edited by Orac; 11/22/12 05:10 PM.
I believe in "Evil, Bad, Ungodly fantasy science and maths", so I am undoubtedly wrong to you.
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Paul, Here is a link to Amazon's listing of a good elementary physics book that should be at your stage of understanding. If you will get a copy and study it, stopping to think about what it is saying, you may begin to understand the basics of physics. Physics For DummiesBe sure to think about what the book is saying because at the elementary level physics is about observing how things work and using logical thinking to evaluate the lessons you can learn. Bill Gill
C is not the speed of light in a vacuum. C is the universal speed limit.
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I just realized that you are getting fixated on F=MA. Well, can you explain this one?
F= G* (M1 * M2)/(d*d)
Where: M1 is the mass of object number 1 M2 is the mass of object number 2 d is the distance between the centers of the 2 masses G is the universal gravitational constant
This formula was developed by Isaac Newton, who also developed F = MA. It also doesn't have any movement in it.
Can you please explain this discrepancy?
Bill Gill
C is not the speed of light in a vacuum. C is the universal speed limit.
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F= G* (M1 * M2)/(d*d)
Where: M1 is the mass of object number 1 M2 is the mass of object number 2 d is the distance between the centers of the 2 masses G is the universal gravitational constant
This formula was developed by Isaac Newton, who also developed F = MA. It also doesn't have any movement in it.
Can you please explain this discrepancy?
I don't see a discrepancy Bill. the formula is not correct. if you were thinking about newtons law of universal gravitation then you have the formula wrong. your d*d should be r^2 ie... F= G* (M1 * M2)/r^2 suppose the actual distance were 93 million miles. using your formula would give 93 million x 93 million = 8649 million using r^2 would give r means radius bill , not distance. 93 million / 2 = 46.5 million 46.5 million would be the radius , Bill 46.5 million ^ 2 ( BTW " ^2 " means squared ) = 2148.3 million quite a large difference there , Mr Bill. its easy to do these days because people ( not science ) are focusing on the fake stuff that includes math the way they want it. is this what you were meaning to post? http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Newton's_law_of_universal_gravitation heres your suggested physics aid , perhaps you should re-read it , this time focus on what the meanings are , instead of what you want it to mean. http://www.amazon.com/Physics-Dummies-Ma...ics+for+dummies It also doesn't have any movement in it. well , the formula only shows the gravitational attraction between two bodies. if the two bodies were motionless , meaning that they do not have any momentum , then they would most definitely be moving toward each other pretty soon if m1 and m2 have any mass. and the above formula would be used to determine just how fast they would move toward each other. to answer your question there is no discrepancy , Mr Bill your usage of the formula is in error. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Newton's_law_of_universal_gravitation by simply reading the article you will notice that the word (( click here -->)) force (( <-- click here )) is a link to another page where force is defined. In physics, a force is any influence that causes an object to undergo a certain change and heres a visual aid for you notice the little arrow above the F and a in the above. the arrow depicts motion in a direction. force requires motion
3/4 inch of dust build up on the moon in 4.527 billion years,LOL and QM is fantasy science.
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I had removed one of the names of the people who I had listed as the people on the forum who seem to think that F=ma is wrong. these are the people on the forum who seem to think that F=ma is wrong.
orac bill gill that name was Bill S however he has since confirmed that he also thinks along the same lines. so the 3 names are as follows orac bill gill bill s its really sad how 3 of the main posters on the forum dont even understand basic physics. even when they are shown there errors they still blindly follow their beliefs , and therefore throw science and physics in the trash can. so that they can pacify their social acquaintances. anyway , I know physics is right and I am right. and I know that they arent right, so I suppose that as long as none of them are engineers of any type then they cannot harm mankind through there ignorance. one ( claims to be ) a k12 teacher , maybe the children he teaches will someday be correctly taught , and the damages will be undone.
3/4 inch of dust build up on the moon in 4.527 billion years,LOL and QM is fantasy science.
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if you were thinking about newtons law of universal gravitation then you have the formula wrong.
your d*d should be r^2 Paul, do you know what r^2 is? r^2 = r*r That's right I said exactly the same thing, except I used a different form and I used d instead of r, because I was looking at the distance between the 2 objects, instead of a radius, such as the radius of an orbit. For 2 objects the attraction between them is exactly the same. One of your problems is that you are trying to make F=MA be the definition of force. It isn't. F=MA is the statement of how force, mass, and acceleration are related. Each of the components of the formula has its own definition. Keep in mind that I could say M = F/A, this is a perfectly valid mathematical manipulation of the formula, and properly applied will give a correct result. Would you now say that M=F/A defines mass? Based on your arguments you would have to do that. Please do a little study on basic physics and realize that all of your arguments are completely wrong. They do not in any way accord with the way the world works. And the only thing that counts in science is if something works every time. Bill Gill
C is not the speed of light in a vacuum. C is the universal speed limit.
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As Bill Gill is pointing out everything you have tried to troll on is wrong it's so trivially wrong noone really cares anymore TROLL.
You know your GOD doesn't exist under your own rules because he can't exert a force unless he is moving and being infinitely big there is nothing he can move in.
PROOF YOUR GOD DOESN'T EXIST BECAUSE YOUR GOD CAN'T MOVE AND HENCE HE CAN'T DO ANYTHING.
HAHA ... GOTCHA WITH YOUR OWN PHYSICS ... WE HAVE PROVED THERE IS NO GOD.
Last edited by Orac; 11/22/12 11:55 PM.
I believe in "Evil, Bad, Ungodly fantasy science and maths", so I am undoubtedly wrong to you.
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Paul, do you know what r^2 is? r^2 = r*r That's right I said exactly the same thing, except I used a different form and I used d instead of r, because I was looking at the distance between the 2 objects, instead of a radius that tells me that you thought you were doing it right. the formula requires (radius squared) not (distance squared). you know you were wrong , otherwise being as smart as you pretend to be you would have used the correct letter. I noticed you didnt use the wrong letters in the rest of the formula. LOL I just realized that you are getting fixated on F=MA. Well, can you explain this one?
F= G* (M1 * M2)/(d*d)
Where: M1 is the mass of object number 1 M2 is the mass of object number 2 d is the distance between the centers of the 2 masses G is the universal gravitational constant
This formula was developed by Isaac Newton, who also developed F = MA. It also doesn't have any movement in it.
Can you please explain this discrepancy?
Bill Gill this proves you were wrong. d is the distance between the centers of the 2 masses d is the distance between the centers I was completely right , even though you will try and squirm around your mistake rather than admit that you were wrong. but thats ok , Im used to that type of behaviour on this wanabe science forum.
3/4 inch of dust build up on the moon in 4.527 billion years,LOL and QM is fantasy science.
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WE HAVE PROVED THERE IS NO GOD. you have only proven that you are a dillweed. and thats most likely all you will ever prove. being a dillweed will probably be your highest accomplishment.
3/4 inch of dust build up on the moon in 4.527 billion years,LOL and QM is fantasy science.
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you are trying to make F=MA be the definition of force no Im not , Mr Bill. I have posted this same thing several times. In physics, a force is any influence that causes an object to undergo a certain change I dont see the formula F=ma in the above. I have used F=ma to demonstrate to you and others that the a in the formula means acceleration. you cant have acceleration without motion. force requires motion
3/4 inch of dust build up on the moon in 4.527 billion years,LOL and QM is fantasy science.
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Your GOD doesn't move so he can't exhibit any force hence he can't exist.
QED ... Your GOD is a falacy and doesn't exist.
Think the threads dead Fred along with your GOD :-)
Last edited by Orac; 11/23/12 06:08 AM.
I believe in "Evil, Bad, Ungodly fantasy science and maths", so I am undoubtedly wrong to you.
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....being infinitely big there is nothing he can move in. Now, that could come back to bite you!
There never was nothing.
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....being infinitely big there is nothing he can move in.
Now, that could come back to bite you! I have always heard that God is everywhere. I didnt know that dillweed knew that also , so there's proof that he has learned something , at some point in time , since he was hatched , but I would like to propose that he looked it up on the internet as his brain cant even comprehend a simple paragraph. and his k-cells have most likely been depleted by a combination of all the fantasy he is so occupied with , along with his drinking habit.
3/4 inch of dust build up on the moon in 4.527 billion years,LOL and QM is fantasy science.
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Paul,
In your quote from Wiki on "Newton's law of universal gravitation", "r" is defined thusly; "r is the distance between the centers of the masses".
Yet you now typed:"the formula requires (radius squared) not (distance squared)".
In the post of Bill G, "d" is defined thusly; "d" is the distance between the centers of the 2 masses".
Therefore r=d by definition, so r^2=d*d. They are equivalent formulas.
Just guessing, but by you dividing "d" by 2 to get "r" in your example, you seem to think "d" is diameter and "r" is radius? Perhaps a reread is in order?
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Well pokey, if you have been here since 07 and have followed any of Pauls posts you should know that he isn't really interested in learning facts, he just wants to have his say and claim that he knows better than all the people in the world who have actually studied physics.
I keep getting sucked into his threads because I am trying to let other people know just how wrong Paul is.
Bill Gill
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Just guessing, but by you dividing "d" by 2 to get "r" in your example, you seem to think "d" is diameter and "r" is radius? your right , I have looked at at least 20 different web sites that contain newtons law of universal gravitation and about half use r and the other half use d I have never seen r used to represent distance before. it's really strange that someone would use a r for distance. this disturbs me , so I looked in a few text books that I keep in my filling cabinet. 1) conceptual physics , matter in motion 1969 pg 124 fig 4-1 for gravitational constant d is used d^2 2) elements of physics 1972 pg 111 fig 9.5 r^2 is used 3) college physics 1974 pg 72 this one uses a small s^2 three books , and 3 different symbols used. and all three different symbols represent the distance between the centers of two objects. I'm not going to say that I was wrong , simply because I don't feel as if this was my fault. I find that this is an error and the fault lies within the scientific community for not establishing a set of standardized symbols to use in this formula and it seem's perhaps all gravitational formulas. I will also add that judging from what I have found Bill was not in error either.
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I think we need to do some clarification here. I just looked up the definition of force in several different places. You are using the definition found in Wikipedia, but in some respects that definitions is lacking. I just looked it up in my copy of the Webster's II New Riverside University Dictionary. They say that Force is "7. Physics. A vector quantity that tends to produce an acceleration of a body in the direction of its application." Now this definition does not say that it does produce an acceleration, it says that it tends to produce an acceleration. This does make a difference. If something tends to do something it will do it frequently, but not always. When we start studying physics we usually look at forces that do cause a change in velocity. But at slightly more advanced levels we start learning about balanced forces. These occur in cases where 2 equal forces are acting in opposite directions and therefore cancel each other out.
I am now looking at the Schaum's Outline of Theoretical Mechanics. I look through it and find a paragraph on Statics of a Particle. In the paragraph it shows a vector diagram of how to determine the force needed to prevent a Particle P from moving. The vector shows the amplitude and direction of the effective force R acting on a particle based on a number of forces which are applied to the partice The paragraph contains the following sentence. "The force needed to prevent P from moving is -R which is a vector equal in magnitude to R but opposite in direction and sometimes called the equilibrant.
So physics does indeed allow for forces which do not cause a change in motion of an object, you just have to have an equal and opposite force.
Bill Gill
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There is also the fact that when discussing the implications of Newton's second law, it is easy to overlook the third law, which contains force but not necessarily motion.
There never was nothing.
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this does bring us back to the formula. F=ma we can safely say now that we have found that our usage of the word ( force ) in physics has several opposing definitions. depending on which dictionary we happen to be looking in. heres the definition found in britannica online which agrees with your post. http://www.britannica.com/search?query=forceforce (physics) In mechanics, any action that tends to maintain or alter the motion of a body or to distort it. The concept of force is commonly explained in terms of Newton’s three laws of motion set forth in his Principia Mathematica (1687).… several other dictionaries also tend to oppose each other. this brings us to the only real problem remaining which is the usage of acceleration in the formula F=ma that is the reason that I say that (force requires motion). F=ma is the mathematical definition of force. it can not be defiled by different people's ideas on its definition as it is a well established mathematics formula. we have already confirmed that our definition of force does not require motion , movement , velocity thus acceleration. in order for us to confirm the validity of ( F=ma ) we must also confirm that (acceleration does not require motion). this is after all the basis of this discussion. F=m0 not F=ma that said , I hold that (force requires motion) I wouldn't want to confuse anyone who might be reading this. if we cannot agree on a new formula to replace F=ma then we should agree on a definition of force that defines a force as a influence with magnitude in a direction that causes a change in the rate of the velocity of an object with time.
3/4 inch of dust build up on the moon in 4.527 billion years,LOL and QM is fantasy science.
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