Originally Posted By: Eddy Pengelly
In my OP I introduced the idea to explore Genesis Chapter 1, from the original Hebrew meanings and context of circa 1230BCE - including the associated contemporary Egyptian connections.

Why then, have some people brought into this context, and wish to include concepts from a different "God" (ie. a son of God) from a different country (and language) from a different time period - some 1,200 years after the original Hebrew words were written by 'Moses' ?

What makes you assume/believe, these people are talking about a different God or that the Son of God references a different God than that of Moses?

I was addicted to the Hokey Pokey, but then I turned myself around!!