Originally Posted By: Bill S.
This statement suggests that time can stop in a specific F of R. Would it not be more accurate to say that an observer in one F of R can observe time apparently stopping in another F of R, but could not observe time stopping in his own F of R?

Very nicely done and that is actually important in one situation which I suspect you have realized.

I informally gave the full answer to Dave Proffitt but lets see if you can deduce it ... I am going to reverse your question.

How would you prove that universal time (time in every reference frame) is stopped?

Think about your answer above smile

You obviously have friends in high places given our discussions smile

Your quantum squeezing got a write up today. Now that I never thought I would ever get to actually see
http://phys.org/news/2015-08-scientists-particle.html


Quote:
On the right, part of the field has been reduced to lower than is technically possible, at the expense of making another part of the field less measurable.


And Lubos obviously has friends in CERN as well
http://motls.blogspot.com.au/2015/09/both-cms-and-atlas-see-52-tev-dijet-and.html

Last edited by Orac; 09/01/15 08:38 AM.

I believe in "Evil, Bad, Ungodly fantasy science and maths", so I am undoubtedly wrong to you.