Quote:
There are an infinite number of fractions and irrationals between zero and 1. There are also infinite number of fractions and irrationals between zero and 2. Since two is greater than one, then the infinity between 0 and 2 must be greater than the infinity between 0 and 1 is that correct?


Obviously it is correct because 2 is greater than one.

On the other hand they both have the cardinality "Aleph null", so they are the same size.

The answer must be a clear "yes and no"
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There never was nothing.