Originally Posted By: paul
1N is the force required to accelerate a 1kg mass to 1m/s/s
in 1 second.

You don't have to wait 1 second. Even at 0.1s it's still accelerating at 1m/s/s. It's confusing to add "in 1 second" at the end. This would also be correct:

"1N is the force required to accelerate a 1kg mass to 1m/s/s in 0.1 seconds."


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it will immediately be accelerating at 0.8m/s/s.

its not immediately or instant , thats why they use 1 second as the time period required for the mass to reach the acceleration rate of 1 m/s/s !!

Wow! No wonder our discussions never go anywhere. You actually don't know that a constant force causes a constant acceleration? That's what F=ma says. As soon as you apply F=50N to a 1kg object, you get a=50m/s/s. There's no "wait around for 1 second till it gets moving".

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and a constant force of 1N will constantly accelerate a 1kg mass at a rate of 1m/s/s

Now you're contradicting the above. Clearly this must be a misuse of words that's leading to miscommunication.


Question:

If you drop a 2kg object so it's in freefall under Earth's gravity (use g=9.8 m/s/s). How much time does it take from when you let go till when it's accelerating at 9.8m/s/s ?