I left out the semantics bit, because I do not think it is a question of semantics here, and I left out the bit disagreeing that educating woman leads to a lower birth rate (and I would suggest a higher standard of living) because it is in fact so. It happens everywhere it happens. How can you then dismiss the statistics when you claim,

First off, I would have to say it is not proven that countries which educate their women have a lower birth rate, but that is where the statistics lead to, and it is not a direct path.

I agree it certainly is where the statistics lead to. It takes a while obviously... perhaps a generation or two, but it is measurable and the data supports my suggestion- and for the reasons I have given in the previous post.